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CRISC Exam Dumps - Isaca Certification Questions and Answers

Question # 154

Which of the following BEST mitigates ethical risk?

Options:

A.

Ethics committees

B.

Contingency scenarios

C.

Awareness of consequences for violations

D.

Routine changes in senior management

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Question # 155

Which of the following is the MOST important metric to monitor the performance of the change management process?

Options:

A.

Percentage of changes having separation of duties in code deployment

B.

Percentage of changes having completed post-implementation verification

C.

Percentage of changes having user acceptance testing (UAT) sign-off

D.

Percentage of changes having to invoke the rollback plan

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Question # 156

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Heat map

D.

Risk register

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Question # 157

Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?

Options:

A.

Number of tickets for provisioning new accounts

B.

Average time to provision user accounts

C.

Password reset volume per month

D.

Average account lockout time

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Question # 158

Which of the following elements of a risk register is MOST likely to change as a result of change in management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk likelihood and impact

D.

Risk velocity

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Question # 159

An organization's decision to remain noncompliant with certain laws or regulations is MOST likely influenced by:

Options:

A.

The region in which the organization operates.

B.

Established business culture.

C.

Risk appetite set by senior management.

D.

Identified business process controls.

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Question # 160

Which of the following will BEST help an organization evaluate the control environment of several third-party vendors?

Options:

A.

Review vendors' internal risk assessments covering key risk and controls.

B.

Obtain independent control reports from high-risk vendors.

C.

Review vendors performance metrics on quality and delivery of processes.

D.

Obtain vendor references from third parties.

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Question # 161

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to senior management about risk mitigation status?

Options:

A.

Risk strategy

B.

Risk register

C.

Gap analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 162

When testing the security of an IT system, il is MOST important to ensure that;

Options:

A.

tests are conducted after business hours.

B.

operators are unaware of the test.

C.

external experts execute the test.

D.

agreement is obtained from stakeholders.

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Question # 163

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that regulatory authorities have concerns with an emerging technology the organization is considering?

Options:

A.

Redesign key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Update risk responses.

C.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

D.

Perform a threat assessment.

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Question # 164

A third-party vendor has offered to perform user access provisioning and termination. Which of the following control accountabilities is BEST retained within the organization?

Options:

A.

Reviewing access control lists

B.

Authorizing user access requests

C.

Performing user access recertification

D.

Terminating inactive user access

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Question # 165

An organization recently received an independent security audit report of its cloud service provider that indicates significant control weaknesses. What should be done NEXT in response to this report?

Options:

A.

Migrate all data to another compliant service provider.

B.

Analyze the impact of the provider's control weaknesses to the business.

C.

Conduct a follow-up audit to verify the provider's control weaknesses.

D.

Review the contract to determine if penalties should be levied against the provider.

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Question # 166

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when managing a risk event related to theft and disclosure of customer information?

Options:

A.

Protecting the organization from negative publicity

B.

Performing a root cause analysis to prevent incident recurrence

C.

Containing the impact of the incident to affected customers

D.

Preventing further dissemination of customer information

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Question # 167

An organization mandates the escalation of a service ticket when a key application is offline for 5 minutes or more due to potential risk exposure. The risk practitioner has been asked by management to prepare a report of application offline times using both 3- and 5-minute thresholds. What does the 3-minute threshold represent?

Options:

A.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

B.

Key Risk Indicator (KRI)

C.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

D.

Key Performance Indicator (KPI)

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Question # 168

An organization has initiated a project to implement an IT risk management program for the first time. The BEST time for the risk practitioner to start populating the risk register is when:

Options:

A.

identifying risk scenarios.

B.

determining the risk strategy.

C.

calculating impact and likelihood.

D.

completing the controls catalog.

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Question # 169

An IT department has organized training sessions to improve user awareness of organizational information security policies. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to reflect effectiveness of the training?

Options:

A.

Number of training sessions completed

B.

Percentage of staff members who complete the training with a passing score

C.

Percentage of attendees versus total staff

D.

Percentage of staff members who attend the training with positive feedback

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Question # 170

A risk practitioner is concerned with potential data loss in the event of a breach at a hosted third-party provider. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

Include an indemnification clause in the provider's contract.

B.

Monitor provider performance against service level agreements (SLAs).

C.

Purchase cyber insurance to protect against data breaches.

D.

Ensure appropriate security controls are in place through independent audits.

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Question # 171

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control?

Options:

A.

Scope of the control coverage

B.

The number of exceptions granted

C.

Number of steps necessary to operate process

D.

Number of control deviations detected

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Question # 172

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has implemented IT performance requirements?

Options:

A.

Service level agreements(SLA)

B.

Vendor references

C.

Benchmarking data

D.

Accountability matrix

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Question # 173

A risk practitioner finds that data has been misclassified. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Unauthorized access

B.

Data corruption

C.

Inadequate retention schedules

D.

Data disruption

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Question # 174

An organization does not have a defined process to revoke IT access of staff members who have changed roles within the organization. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with this deficiency?

Options:

A.

Noncompliance with the access management policy

B.

Fraudulent insider activities

C.

Misaligned job duties

D.

Inefficient access review processes

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Question # 175

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response?

Options:

A.

Align business objectives to the risk profile.

B.

Assess risk against business objectives

C.

Implement an organization-specific risk taxonomy.

D.

Explain risk details to management.

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Question # 176

Which of the following is an IT business owner's BEST course of action following an unexpected increase in emergency changes?

Options:

A.

Evaluating the impact to control objectives

B.

Conducting a root cause analysis

C.

Validating the adequacy of current processes

D.

Reconfiguring the IT infrastructure

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Question # 177

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to revisit a previously accepted risk?

Options:

A.

To update risk ownership

B.

To review the risk acceptance with new stakeholders

C.

To ensure risk levels have not changed

D.

To ensure controls are still operating effectively

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Question # 178

Which of the following situations would cause the GREATEST concern around the integrity of application logs?

Options:

A.

Weak privileged access management controls

B.

Lack of a security information and event management (SIEM) system

C.

Lack of data classification policies

D.

Use of hashing algorithms

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Question # 179

Which of the following information is MOST useful to a risk practitioner for developing IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Published vulnerabilities relevant to the business

B.

Threat actors that can trigger events

C.

Events that could potentially impact the business

D.

IT assets requiring the greatest investment

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Question # 180

Mitigating technology risk to acceptable levels should be based PRIMARILY upon:

Options:

A.

organizational risk appetite.

B.

business sector best practices.

C.

business process requirements.

D.

availability of automated solutions

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Question # 181

Which of the following is the BEST method to maintain a common view of IT risk within an organization?

Options:

A.

Collecting data for IT risk assessment

B.

Establishing and communicating the IT risk profile

C.

Utilizing a balanced scorecard

D.

Performing and publishing an IT risk analysis

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Question # 182

The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:

Options:

A.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.

B.

the likelihood of a given threat.

C.

a function of the likelihood and impact.

D.

the magnitude of an impact.

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Question # 183

Which of the following will BEST ensure that information security risk factors are mitigated when developing in-house applications?

Options:

A.

Identify information security controls in the requirements analysis

B.

Identify key risk indicators (KRIs) as process output.

C.

Design key performance indicators (KPIs) for security in system specifications.

D.

Include information security control specifications in business cases.

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Question # 184

The PRIMARY objective for selecting risk response options is to:

Options:

A.

reduce risk 10 an acceptable level.

B.

identify compensating controls.

C.

minimize residual risk.

D.

reduce risk factors.

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Question # 185

What information is MOST helpful to asset owners when classifying organizational assets for risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Potential loss to tie business due to non-performance of the asset

B.

Known emerging environmental threats

C.

Known vulnerabilities published by the asset developer

D.

Cost of replacing the asset with a new asset providing similar services

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Question # 186

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control action plan's implementation?

Options:

A.

Increased number of controls

B.

Reduced risk level

C.

Increased risk appetite

D.

Stakeholder commitment

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Question # 187

Which of the following would be MOST effective in monitoring changes in an organization's IT risk environment?

Options:

A.

Lagging indicators

B.

Risk mitigation plans

C.

Industry regulatory reports

D.

Risk inventory

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Question # 188

Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern for a risk practitioner regarding an organization's adoption of innovative big data analytics capabilities?

Options:

A.

It may be expensive to maintain a data lake.

B.

It may be difficult to find experts who can develop analytical queries.

C.

There may be a lack of documented processes for big data analysis.

D.

Analytics methods may identify someone who was previously de-identified.

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Question # 189

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the risk associated with the leakage of confidential data?

Options:

A.

Maintain and review the classified data inventor.

B.

Implement mandatory encryption on data

C.

Conduct an awareness program for data owners and users.

D.

Define and implement a data classification policy

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Question # 190

Which type of cloud computing deployment provides the consumer the GREATEST degree of control over the environment?

Options:

A.

Community cloud

B.

Private cloud

C.

Hybrid cloud

D.

Public cloud

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Question # 191

A risk practitioner has observed that risk owners have approved a high number of exceptions to the information security policy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Security policies are being reviewed infrequently.

B.

Controls are not operating efficiently.

C.

Vulnerabilities are not being mitigated

D.

Aggregate risk is approaching the tolerance threshold

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Question # 192

The design of procedures to prevent fraudulent transactions within an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system should be based on:

Options:

A.

stakeholder risk tolerance.

B.

benchmarking criteria.

C.

suppliers used by the organization.

D.

the control environment.

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Question # 193

Which of the following is MOST important when defining controls?

Options:

A.

Identifying monitoring mechanisms

B.

Including them in the risk register

C.

Aligning them with business objectives

D.

Prototyping compensating controls

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Question # 194

Which of the following is MOST appropriate to prevent unauthorized retrieval of confidential information stored in a business application system?

Options:

A.

Implement segregation of duties.

B.

Enforce an internal data access policy.

C.

Enforce the use of digital signatures.

D.

Apply single sign-on for access control.

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Question # 195

An organization recently invested in an identity and access management (IAM) solution to manage user activities across corporate mobile devices. Which of the following is MOST important to update in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Residual risk

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Question # 196

Which of the following is the MOST effective way 10 identify an application backdoor prior to implementation'?

Options:

A.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Source code review

D.

Vulnerability analysis

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Question # 197

Of the following, who is accountable for ensuing the effectiveness of a control to mitigate risk?

Options:

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk manager

C.

Control operator

D.

Risk treatment owner

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Question # 198

A vendor's planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?

Options:

A.

IT infrastructure manager

B.

Chief Risk Officer (CRO)

C.

Business continuity manager

D.

Business application owner

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Question # 199

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Scheduling periodic audits

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

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Question # 200

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do NEXT after learning that Internet of Things (loT) devices installed in the production environment lack appropriate security controls for

sensitive data?

Options:

A.

Assess the threat and associated impact.

B.

Evaluate risk appetite and tolerance levels

C.

Recommend device management controls

D.

Enable role-based access control.

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Question # 201

An organization operates in a jurisdiction where heavy fines are imposed for leakage of customer data. Which of the following provides the BEST input to assess the inherent risk impact?

Options:

A.

Number of customer records held

B.

Number of databases that host customer data

C.

Number of encrypted customer databases

D.

Number of staff members having access to customer data

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Question # 202

When determining which control deficiencies are most significant, which of the following would provide the MOST useful information?

Options:

A.

Risk analysis results

B.

Exception handling policy

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Benchmarking assessments

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Question # 203

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do NEXT after learning that Internet of Things (IoT) devices installed in the production environment lack appropriate security controls for sensitive data?

Options:

A.

Recommend device management controls.

B.

Enable role-based access control (RBAC).

C.

Assess the threat and associated impact.

D.

Evaluate risk appetite and tolerance levels.

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Exam Code: CRISC
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Last Update: Nov 15, 2025
Questions: 1857
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