GET 70% Discount on All Products
Coupon code: "Board70"
When is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) considered to be valid?
When it has been validated by the Business Continuity (BC) manager
When it has been validated by the board of directors
When it has been validated by all threat scenarios
When it has been validated by realistic exercises
A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is considered to be valid when it has been validated by realistic exercises. A BCP is a part of a BCP/DRP that focuses on ensuring the continuous operation of the organization’s critical business functions and processes during and after a disruption or disaster. A BCP should include various components, such as:
A BCP is considered to be valid when it has been validated by realistic exercises, because it can ensure that the BCP is practical and applicable, and that it can achieve the desired outcomes and objectives in a real-life scenario. Realistic exercises are a type of testing, training, and exercises that involve performing and practicing the BCP with the relevant stakeholders, using simulated or hypothetical scenarios, such as a fire drill, a power outage, or a cyberattack. Realistic exercises can provide several benefits, such as:
The other options are not the criteria for considering a BCP to be valid, but rather the steps or parties that are involved in developing or approving a BCP. When it has been validated by the Business Continuity (BC) manager is not a criterion for considering a BCP to be valid, but rather a step that is involved in developing a BCP. The BC manager is the person who is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the BCP activities and processes, such as the business impact analysis, the recovery strategies, the BCP document, the testing, training, and exercises, and the maintenance and review. The BC manager can validate the BCP by reviewing and verifying the BCP components and outcomes, and ensuring that they meet the BCP standards and objectives. However, the validation by the BC manager is not enough to consider the BCP to be valid, as it does not test or demonstrate the BCP in a realistic scenario. When it has been validated by the board of directors is not a criterion for considering a BCP to be valid, but rather a party that is involved in approving a BCP. The board of directors is the group of people who are elected by the shareholders to represent their interests and to oversee the strategic direction and governance of the organization. The board of directors can approve the BCP by endorsing and supporting the BCP components and outcomes, and allocating the necessary resources and funds for the BCP. However, the approval by the board of directors is not enough to consider the BCP to be valid, as it does not test or demonstrate the BCP in a realistic scenario. When it has been validated by all threat scenarios is not a criterion for considering a BCP to be valid, but rather an unrealistic or impossible expectation for validating a BCP. A threat scenario is a description or a simulation of a possible or potential disruption or disaster that might affect the organization’s critical business functions and processes, such as a natural hazard, a human error, or a technical failure. A threat scenario can be used to test and validate the BCP by measuring and evaluating the BCP’s performance and effectiveness in responding and recovering from the disruption or disaster. However, it is not possible or feasible to validate the BCP by all threat scenarios, as there are too many or unknown threat scenarios that might occur, and some threat scenarios might be too severe or complex to simulate or test. Therefore, the BCP should be validated by the most likely or relevant threat scenarios, and not by all threat scenarios.
Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRIP) MUST be aligned with which of the following?
Hardware and software compatibility issues
Applications’ critically and downtime tolerance
Budget constraints and requirements
Cost/benefit analysis and business objectives
Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRP) must be aligned with the cost/benefit analysis and business objectives. A DRP is a part of a BCP/DRP that focuses on restoring the normal operation of the organization’s IT systems and infrastructure after a disruption or disaster. A DRP should include various components, such as:
Recovery strategies of a DRP must be aligned with the cost/benefit analysis and business objectives, because it can ensure that the DRP is feasible and suitable, and that it can achieve the desired outcomes and objectives in a cost-effective and efficient manner. A cost/benefit analysis is a technique that compares the costs and benefits of different recovery strategies, and determines the optimal one that provides the best value for money. A business objective is a goal or a target that the organization wants to achieve through its IT systems and infrastructure, such as increasing the productivity, profitability, or customer satisfaction. A recovery strategy that is aligned with the cost/benefit analysis and business objectives can help to:
The other options are not the factors that the recovery strategies of a DRP must be aligned with, but rather factors that should be considered or addressed when developing or implementing the recovery strategies of a DRP. Hardware and software compatibility issues are factors that should be considered when developing the recovery strategies of a DRP, because they can affect the functionality and interoperability of the IT systems and infrastructure, and may require additional resources or adjustments to resolve them. Applications’ criticality and downtime tolerance are factors that should be addressed when implementing the recovery strategies of a DRP, because they can determine the priority and urgency of the recovery for different applications, and may require different levels of recovery objectives and resources. Budget constraints and requirements are factors that should be considered when developing the recovery strategies of a DRP, because they can limit the availability and affordability of the IT resources and funds for the recovery, and may require trade-offs or compromises to balance them.
Which of the following types of business continuity tests includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations?
Walkthrough
Simulation
Parallel
White box
Simulation is the type of business continuity test that includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations. Business continuity is the ability of an organization to maintain or resume its critical functions and operations in the event of a disruption or disaster. Business continuity testing is the process of evaluating and validating the effectiveness and readiness of the business continuity plan (BCP) and the disaster recovery plan (DRP) through various methods and scenarios. Business continuity testing can provide several benefits, such as:
There are different types of business continuity tests, depending on the scope, purpose, and complexity of the test. Some of the common types are:
Simulation is the type of business continuity test that includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations, because it can simulate various types of risks, such as natural, human, or technical, and assess how the organization and its systems can cope and recover from them, without actually causing any harm or disruption to the live operations. Simulation can also help to identify and mitigate any potential risks that might affect the live operations, and to improve the resilience and preparedness of the organization and its systems.
The other options are not the types of business continuity tests that include assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations, but rather types that have other objectives or effects. Walkthrough is a type of business continuity test that does not include assessment of resilience to internal and external risks, but rather a review and discussion of the BCP and DRP, without any actual testing or practice. Parallel is a type of business continuity test that does not endanger live operations, but rather maintains them, while activating and operating the alternate site or system. Full interruption is a type of business continuity test that does endanger live operations, by shutting them down and transferring them to the alternate site or system.
Which of the following is the FIRST step in the incident response process?
Determine the cause of the incident
Disconnect the system involved from the network
Isolate and contain the system involved
Investigate all symptoms to confirm the incident
Investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident is the first step in the incident response process. An incident is an event that violates or threatens the security, availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the IT systems or data. An incident response is a process that involves detecting, analyzing, containing, eradicating, recovering, and learning from an incident, using various methods and tools. An incident response can provide several benefits, such as:
Investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident is the first step in the incident response process, because it can ensure that the incident is verified and validated, and that the incident response is initiated and escalated. A symptom is a sign or an indication that an incident may have occurred or is occurring, such as an alert, a log, or a report. Investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident involves collecting and analyzing the relevant data and information from various sources, such as the IT systems, the network, the users, or the external parties, and determining whether an incident has actually happened or is happening, and how serious or urgent it is. Investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident can also help to:
The other options are not the first steps in the incident response process, but rather steps that should be done after or along with investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident. Determining the cause of the incident is a step that should be done after investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident, because it can ensure that the root cause and source of the incident are identified and analyzed, and that the incident response is directed and focused. Determining the cause of the incident involves examining and testing the affected IT systems and data, and tracing and tracking the origin and path of the incident, using various techniques and tools, such as forensics, malware analysis, or reverse engineering. Determining the cause of the incident can also help to:
Disconnecting the system involved from the network is a step that should be done along with investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident, because it can ensure that the system is isolated and protected from any external or internal influences or interferences, and that the incident response is conducted in a safe and controlled environment. Disconnecting the system involved from the network can also help to:
Isolating and containing the system involved is a step that should be done after investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident, because it can ensure that the incident is confined and restricted, and that the incident response is continued and maintained. Isolating and containing the system involved involves applying and enforcing the appropriate security measures and controls to limit or stop the activity and impact of the incident on the IT systems and data, such as firewall rules, access policies, or encryption keys. Isolating and containing the system involved can also help to:
What should be the FIRST action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved?
Take the computer to a forensic lab
Make a copy of the hard drive
Start documenting
Turn off the computer
Making a copy of the hard drive should be the first action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved. A chain of evidence, also known as a chain of custody, is a process that documents and preserves the integrity and authenticity of the evidence collected from a crime scene, such as a desktop computer. A chain of evidence should include information such as:
Making a copy of the hard drive should be the first action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved, because it can ensure that the original hard drive is not altered, damaged, or destroyed during the forensic analysis, and that the copy can be used as a reliable and admissible source of evidence. Making a copy of the hard drive should also involve using a write blocker, which is a device or a software that prevents any modification or deletion of the data on the hard drive, and generating a hash value, which is a unique and fixed identifier that can verify the integrity and consistency of the data on the hard drive.
The other options are not the first actions to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved, but rather actions that should be done after or along with making a copy of the hard drive. Taking the computer to a forensic lab is an action that should be done after making a copy of the hard drive, because it can ensure that the computer is transported and stored in a secure and controlled environment, and that the forensic analysis is conducted by qualified and authorized personnel. Starting documenting is an action that should be done along with making a copy of the hard drive, because it can ensure that the chain of evidence is maintained and recorded throughout the forensic process, and that the evidence can be traced and verified. Turning off the computer is an action that should be done after making a copy of the hard drive, because it can ensure that the computer is powered down and disconnected from any network or device, and that the computer is protected from any further damage or tampering.
Which of the following factors contributes to the weakness of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol?
WEP uses a small range Initialization Vector (IV)
WEP uses Message Digest 5 (MD5)
WEP uses Diffie-Hellman
WEP does not use any Initialization Vector (IV)
WEP uses a small range Initialization Vector (IV) is the factor that contributes to the weakness of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol. WEP is a security protocol that provides encryption and authentication for wireless networks, such as Wi-Fi. WEP uses the RC4 stream cipher to encrypt the data packets, and the CRC-32 checksum to verify the data integrity. WEP also uses a shared secret key, which is concatenated with a 24-bit Initialization Vector (IV), to generate the keystream for the RC4 encryption. WEP has several weaknesses and vulnerabilities, such as:
WEP has been deprecated and replaced by more secure protocols, such as Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) or Wi-Fi Protected Access II (WPA2), which use stronger encryption and authentication methods, such as the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP), the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES), or the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP).
The other options are not factors that contribute to the weakness of WEP, but rather factors that are irrelevant or incorrect. WEP does not use Message Digest 5 (MD5), which is a hash function that produces a 128-bit output from a variable-length input. WEP does not use Diffie-Hellman, which is a method for generating a shared secret key between two parties. WEP does use an Initialization Vector (IV), which is a 24-bit value that is concatenated with the secret key.
An external attacker has compromised an organization’s network security perimeter and installed a sniffer onto an inside computer. Which of the following is the MOST effective layer of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information?
Implement packet filtering on the network firewalls
Install Host Based Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS)
Require strong authentication for administrators
Implement logical network segmentation at the switches
Implementing logical network segmentation at the switches is the most effective layer of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information. Logical network segmentation is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnetworks or segments based on criteria such as function, location, or security level. Logical network segmentation can be implemented at the switches, which are devices that operate at the data link layer of the OSI model and forward data packets based on the MAC addresses. Logical network segmentation can provide several benefits, such as:
Logical network segmentation can mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information by limiting the visibility and access of the sniffer to the segment where it is installed. A sniffer is a tool that captures and analyzes the data packets that are transmitted over a network. A sniffer can be used for legitimate purposes, such as troubleshooting, testing, or monitoring the network, or for malicious purposes, such as eavesdropping, stealing, or modifying the data. A sniffer can only capture the data packets that are within its broadcast domain, which is the set of devices that can communicate with each other without a router. By implementing logical network segmentation at the switches, the organization can create multiple broadcast domains and isolate the sensitive or critical data from the compromised segment. This way, the attacker can only see the data packets that belong to the same segment as the sniffer, and not the data packets that belong to other segments. This can prevent the attacker from gaining further information or accessing other resources on the network.
The other options are not the most effective layers of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information, but rather layers that have other limitations or drawbacks. Implementing packet filtering on the network firewalls is not the most effective layer of security, because packet filtering only examines the network layer header of the data packets, such as the source and destination IP addresses, and does not inspect the payload or the content of the data. Packet filtering can also be bypassed by using techniques such as IP spoofing or fragmentation. Installing Host Based Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS) is not the most effective layer of security, because HIDS only monitors and detects the activities and events on a single host, and does not prevent or respond to the attacks. HIDS can also be disabled or evaded by the attacker if the host is compromised. Requiring strong authentication for administrators is not the most effective layer of security, because authentication only verifies the identity of the users or processes, and does not protect the data in transit or at rest. Authentication can also be defeated by using techniques such as phishing, keylogging, or credential theft.
Which of the following is the BEST network defense against unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks in progress?
Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS)
Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)
Stateful firewalls
Network Behavior Analysis (NBA) tools
Network Behavior Analysis (NBA) tools are the best network defense against unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks in progress. NBA tools are devices or software that monitor and analyze the network traffic and activities, and detect any anomalies or deviations from the normal or expected behavior. NBA tools use various techniques, such as statistical analysis, machine learning, artificial intelligence, or heuristics, to establish a baseline of the network behavior, and to identify any outliers or indicators of compromise. NBA tools can provide several benefits, such as:
The other options are not the best network defense against unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks in progress, but rather network defenses that have other limitations or drawbacks. Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS) are devices or software that monitor and block the network traffic and activities that match the predefined signatures or rules of known attacks. IPS can provide a proactive and preventive layer of security, but they cannot detect or stop unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks that do not match any signatures or rules, or that can evade or disable the IPS. Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) are devices or software that monitor and alert the network traffic and activities that match the predefined signatures or rules of known attacks. IDS can provide a reactive and detective layer of security, but they cannot detect or alert unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks that do not match any signatures or rules, or that can evade or disable the IDS. Stateful firewalls are devices or software that filter and control the network traffic and activities based on the state and context of the network sessions, such as the source and destination IP addresses, port numbers, protocol types, and sequence numbers. Stateful firewalls can provide a granular and dynamic layer of security, but they cannot filter or control unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks that use valid or spoofed network sessions, or that can exploit or bypass the firewall rules.
What is the purpose of an Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing attack?
To send excessive amounts of data to a process, making it unpredictable
To intercept network traffic without authorization
To disguise the destination address from a target’s IP filtering devices
To convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity
The purpose of an Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing attack is to convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity. IP spoofing is a technique that involves creating and sending IP packets with a forged source IP address, which is usually the IP address of a trusted or authorized host. IP spoofing can be used for various malicious purposes, such as:
The purpose of IP spoofing is to convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity, because it allows the attacker to evade detection, avoid responsibility, and exploit trust relationships.
The other options are not the main purposes of IP spoofing, but rather the possible consequences or methods of IP spoofing. To send excessive amounts of data to a process, making it unpredictable is a possible consequence of IP spoofing, as it can cause a DoS or DDoS attack. To intercept network traffic without authorization is a possible method of IP spoofing, as it can be used to hijack or intercept a TCP session. To disguise the destination address from a target’s IP filtering devices is not a valid option, as IP spoofing involves forging the source address, not the destination address.
At what level of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model is data at rest on a Storage Area Network (SAN) located?
Link layer
Physical layer
Session layer
Application layer
Data at rest on a Storage Area Network (SAN) is located at the physical layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model. The OSI model is a conceptual framework that describes how data is transmitted and processed across different layers of a network. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical. The physical layer is the lowest layer of the OSI model, and it is responsible for the transmission and reception of raw bits over a physical medium, such as cables, wires, or optical fibers. The physical layer defines the physical characteristics of the medium, such as voltage, frequency, modulation, connectors, etc. The physical layer also deals with the physical topology of the network, such as bus, ring, star, mesh, etc.
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a dedicated network that provides access to consolidated and block-level data storage. A SAN consists of storage devices, such as disks, tapes, or arrays, that are connected to servers or clients via a network infrastructure, such as switches, routers, or hubs. A SAN allows multiple servers or clients to share the same storage devices, and it provides high performance, availability, scalability, and security for data storage. Data at rest on a SAN is located at the physical layer of the OSI model, because it is stored as raw bits on the physical medium of the storage devices, and it is accessed by the servers or clients through the physical medium of the network infrastructure.
Which of the following is used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) to determine packet formats?
Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
Link Control Protocol (LCP)
Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Packet Transfer Protocol (PTP)
Link Control Protocol (LCP) is used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) to determine packet formats. PPP is a data link layer protocol that provides a standard method for transporting network layer packets over point-to-point links, such as serial lines, modems, or dial-up connections. PPP supports various network layer protocols, such as IP, IPX, or AppleTalk, and it can encapsulate them in a common frame format. PPP also provides features such as authentication, compression, error detection, and multilink aggregation. LCP is a subprotocol of PPP that is responsible for establishing, configuring, maintaining, and terminating the point-to-point connection. LCP negotiates and agrees on various options and parameters for the PPP link, such as the maximum transmission unit (MTU), the authentication method, the compression method, the error detection method, and the packet format. LCP uses a series of messages, such as configure-request, configure-ack, configure-nak, configure-reject, terminate-request, terminate-ack, code-reject, protocol-reject, echo-request, echo-reply, and discard-request, to communicate and exchange information between the PPP peers.
The other options are not used by PPP to determine packet formats, but rather for other purposes. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is a tunneling protocol that allows the creation of virtual private networks (VPNs) over public networks, such as the Internet. L2TP encapsulates PPP frames in IP datagrams and sends them across the tunnel between two L2TP endpoints. L2TP does not determine the packet format of PPP, but rather uses it as a payload. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) is an authentication protocol that is used by PPP to verify the identity of the remote peer before allowing access to the network. CHAP uses a challenge-response mechanism that involves a random number (nonce) and a hash function to prevent replay attacks. CHAP does not determine the packet format of PPP, but rather uses it as a transport. Packet Transfer Protocol (PTP) is not a valid option, as there is no such protocol with this name. There is a Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE), which is a protocol that encapsulates PPP frames in Ethernet frames and allows the use of PPP over Ethernet networks. PPPoE does not determine the packet format of PPP, but rather uses it as a payload.
In a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) stack, which layer is responsible for negotiating and establishing a connection with another node?
Transport layer
Application layer
Network layer
Session layer
The transport layer of the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) stack is responsible for negotiating and establishing a connection with another node. The TCP/IP stack is a simplified version of the OSI model, and it consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and link. The transport layer is the third layer of the TCP/IP stack, and it is responsible for providing reliable and efficient end-to-end data transfer between two nodes on a network. The transport layer uses protocols, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) or User Datagram Protocol (UDP), to segment, sequence, acknowledge, and reassemble the data packets, and to handle error detection and correction, flow control, and congestion control. The transport layer also provides connection-oriented or connectionless services, depending on the protocol used.
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol, which means that it establishes a logical connection between two nodes before exchanging data, and it maintains the connection until the data transfer is complete. TCP uses a three-way handshake to negotiate and establish a connection with another node. The three-way handshake works as follows:
UDP is a connectionless protocol, which means that it does not establish or maintain a connection between two nodes, but rather sends data packets independently and without any guarantee of delivery, order, or integrity. UDP does not use a handshake or any other mechanism to negotiate and establish a connection with another node, but rather relies on the application layer to handle any connection-related issues.
Which of the following operates at the Network Layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model?
Packet filtering
Port services filtering
Content filtering
Application access control
Packet filtering operates at the network layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model. The OSI model is a conceptual framework that describes how data is transmitted and processed across different layers of a network. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical. The network layer is the third layer from the bottom of the OSI model, and it is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks or subnets. The network layer uses logical addresses, such as IP addresses, to identify the source and destination of the data packets, and it uses protocols, such as IP, ICMP, or ARP, to perform the routing and forwarding functions.
Packet filtering is a technique that controls the access to a network or a host by inspecting the incoming and outgoing data packets and applying a set of rules or policies to allow or deny them. Packet filtering can be performed by devices, such as routers, firewalls, or proxies, that operate at the network layer of the OSI model. Packet filtering typically examines the network layer header of the data packets, such as the source and destination IP addresses, the protocol type, or the fragmentation flags, and compares them with the predefined rules or policies. Packet filtering can also examine the transport layer header of the data packets, such as the source and destination port numbers, the TCP flags, or the sequence numbers, and compare them with the rules or policies. Packet filtering can provide a basic level of security and performance for a network or a host, but it also has some limitations, such as the inability to inspect the payload or the content of the data packets, the vulnerability to spoofing or fragmentation attacks, or the complexity and maintenance of the rules or policies.
The other options are not techniques that operate at the network layer of the OSI model, but rather at other layers. Port services filtering is a technique that controls the access to a network or a host by inspecting the transport layer header of the data packets and applying a set of rules or policies to allow or deny them based on the port numbers or the services. Port services filtering operates at the transport layer of the OSI model, which is the fourth layer from the bottom. Content filtering is a technique that controls the access to a network or a host by inspecting the application layer payload or the content of the data packets and applying a set of rules or policies to allow or deny them based on the keywords, URLs, file types, or other criteria. Content filtering operates at the application layer of the OSI model, which is the seventh and the topmost layer. Application access control is a technique that controls the access to a network or a host by inspecting the application layer identity or the credentials of the users or the processes and applying a set of rules or policies to allow or deny them based on the roles, permissions, or other attributes. Application access control operates at the application layer of the OSI model, which is the seventh and the topmost layer.
An input validation and exception handling vulnerability has been discovered on a critical web-based system. Which of the following is MOST suited to quickly implement a control?
Add a new rule to the application layer firewall
Block access to the service
Install an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Patch the application source code
Adding a new rule to the application layer firewall is the most suited to quickly implement a control for an input validation and exception handling vulnerability on a critical web-based system. An input validation and exception handling vulnerability is a type of vulnerability that occurs when a web-based system does not properly check, filter, or sanitize the input data that is received from the users or other sources, or does not properly handle the errors or exceptions that are generated by the system. An input validation and exception handling vulnerability can lead to various attacks, such as:
An application layer firewall is a device or software that operates at the application layer of the OSI model and inspects the application layer payload or the content of the data packets. An application layer firewall can provide various functions, such as:
Adding a new rule to the application layer firewall is the most suited to quickly implement a control for an input validation and exception handling vulnerability on a critical web-based system, because it can prevent or reduce the impact of the attacks by filtering or blocking the malicious or invalid input data that exploit the vulnerability. For example, a new rule can be added to the application layer firewall to:
Adding a new rule to the application layer firewall can be done quickly and easily, without requiring any changes or patches to the web-based system, which can be time-consuming and risky, especially for a critical system. Adding a new rule to the application layer firewall can also be done remotely and centrally, without requiring any physical access or installation on the web-based system, which can be inconvenient and costly, especially for a distributed system.
The other options are not the most suited to quickly implement a control for an input validation and exception handling vulnerability on a critical web-based system, but rather options that have other limitations or drawbacks. Blocking access to the service is not the most suited option, because it can cause disruption and unavailability of the service, which can affect the business operations and customer satisfaction, especially for a critical system. Blocking access to the service can also be a temporary and incomplete solution, as it does not address the root cause of the vulnerability or prevent the attacks from occurring again. Installing an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is not the most suited option, because IDS only monitors and detects the attacks, and does not prevent or respond to them. IDS can also generate false positives or false negatives, which can affect the accuracy and reliability of the detection. IDS can also be overwhelmed or evaded by the attacks, which can affect the effectiveness and efficiency of the detection. Patching the application source code is not the most suited option, because it can take a long time and require a lot of resources and testing to identify, fix, and deploy the patch, especially for a complex and critical system. Patching the application source code can also introduce new errors or vulnerabilities, which can affect the functionality and security of the system. Patching the application source code can also be difficult or impossible, if the system is proprietary or legacy, which can affect the feasibility and compatibility of the patch.
An organization has doubled in size due to a rapid market share increase. The size of the Information Technology (IT) staff has maintained pace with this growth. The organization hires several contractors whose onsite time is limited. The IT department has pushed its limits building servers and rolling out workstations and has a backlog of account management requests.
Which contract is BEST in offloading the task from the IT staff?
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Identity as a Service (IDaaS)
Desktop as a Service (DaaS)
Software as a Service (SaaS)
Identity as a Service (IDaaS) is the best contract in offloading the task of account management from the IT staff. IDaaS is a cloud-based service that provides identity and access management (IAM) functions, such as user authentication, authorization, provisioning, deprovisioning, password management, single sign-on (SSO), and multifactor authentication (MFA). IDaaS can help the organization to streamline and automate the account management process, reduce the workload and costs of the IT staff, and improve the security and compliance of the user accounts. IDaaS can also support the contractors who have limited onsite time, as they can access the organization’s resources remotely and securely through the IDaaS provider.
The other options are not as effective as IDaaS in offloading the task of account management from the IT staff, as they do not provide IAM functions. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud-based service that provides a platform for developing, testing, and deploying applications, but it does not manage the user accounts for the applications. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) is a cloud-based service that provides virtual desktops for users to access applications and data, but it does not manage the user accounts for the virtual desktops. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud-based service that provides software applications for users to use, but it does not manage the user accounts for the software applications.
TESTED 31 Jan 2025
Copyright © 2014-2025 CertsBoard. All Rights Reserved