A pension fund has $100m in liabilities due in the future with an average modified duration of 20 years. The fund also holds a fixed income portfolio worth $125m with an average duration of 15 years. Which of the following approaches would be best suited for the pension fund to cover its interest rate risk?
If the zero coupon spot rate for 3 years is 5% and the same rate for 2 years is 4%, what is the forward rate from year 2 to year 3?