8006 Exam Dumps - PRMIA PRM Certification Questions and Answers

The arbitrage pricing theory is a multifactor model for explaining asset returns as it can be used to incorporate multiple factors, for example inflation, GDP growth rate, employment, interest rates etc to explain asset returns. Choice 'a' is the correct answer.

The single index model, as the name implies, uses only a single factor, and so does the CAPM which uses excess returns to explain an individual security's returns. Neither of these are multi-factor models.

Selling July corn futures would be the cheapest and most appropriate risk management strategy for this corn farmer trying to hedge his risk against falling prices. When June comes, he can close out the futures contracts and any loss or gain on the futures contract would be approximately equal to the change in the spot price of corn from January to June.

Buying corn futures is a bad idea because that would require the farmer to buy corn, which would only add to his expected stock of corn expected from the harvest. The same applies to buying a call option on corn. In the same way, selling a put option would be inappropriate because the buyer of the this put would have the right to sell corn to the farmer at the exercise price, which is not what we want. Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer.

There was no event such as the CDO squeeze in 2008. (Quite on the contrary, securitized products were selling at distressed prices.).

The silver squeeze of 1979-80 (Hunt brothers), the Chicago fire of 1872 (leading to a short squeeze on wheat), and the wheat squeeze (Hutchingson) of 1866 are real historical events that led to short squeezes in commodity markets. Choice 'b' is therefore the correct answer.

For the PRM exam, you should try to remember the event broadly, and the commodity involved.

The prices must satisfy the put-call parity, and if they do not, it means there is an arbitrage opportunity, The put-call parity is as follows. We plug in the values to check if the parity is maintainted.

Buying a call + Bank Deposit (PV of exercise price) = Buying the stock + Buying a put

Thus the LHS = $10 + $100/(1 + 5%) = $105.24

and RHS = $100 + $10 = $110, ie the equality does not hold.

Since the trader can make a profit by buying low and selling high, and the set of positions on the left should be brought, and those on the RHS should be sold. Thus the trader should buy the call, sell the put and sell the stock to make a risk free profit. (There is no need to explicitly place a bank deposit at the risk-free rate).

The security market line is generally shown graphically with returns on the y-axis and the asset's beta on the x-axis. The correct answer is Choice 'a'.

Note the difference between the SML and the CML (the capital markets line). The CML is the transformation line joining the risk free rate on the y-axis and the portfolio with the maximum Sharpe ratio on the efficient frontier, and expresses the relationship between risk and return.

Explanation:

Remember how exchange rates are generally quoted. Most exchange rates are quoted in terms of how many foreign currencies does USD 1 buy. Therefore, a rate of 99 for the JPY means that USD 1 is equal to JPY 99. These are called 'direct rates'. However, there are four major world currencies where the rate quote convention is the other way round - these are EUR, GBP, AUD and NZD. For these currencies, the FX quote implies how many US dollars can one unit of these currencies buy. So a quote of "1.1023" for the Euro means EUR 1 is equal to USD 1.1023 and not the other way round.

The OTC market for foreign exchange is indeed much larger than the exchange traded futures market for FX. Therefore statement I is correct.

Delivery-versus-payment (DVP) arrangements make sure that title to a security passes only when payment has been made, and these arrangements, usually implemented through national clearing agencies such as the DTC in the US, help avoid the risk of counterparty defaults.

Electronic Clearing Networks (ECNs) offer cheaper trading costs than exchanges, in fact that is their primary attraction. Exchanges offer other advantages, but lower trading costs is not one of them.

ISDA master agreements provide templates that a large number of OTC market participants use to standardize their OTC trading activities. Therefore statement IV is correct.

Choice 'd' is the correct answer. Continuously compounded returns are given by the log of S2/S1. The expression (S2 - S1)/S1 gives discrete returns, not continuously compounded returns.

Note that the question is only asking for the return over the given time period, not annualized returns. So t is not relevant here. If we had to find annualized returns, and t were expressed in years, then the annualized return would have been (1/t)*ln(S2/S1).

Also refer to the tutorial on interest rates and compounding for more information on continuously compounded rates.

A CDS contract provides exposure to default risk and the credit spread for a particular credit. It does not provide an exposure to the risk of interest rates going up or down. It is an instrument that allows institutions to take a view on the price of credit risk alone. Therefore statement I is false and statement II is true.

A total return swap (TRS) exchanges the return from an asset for a fixed or floating exchange rate. It is in essence a financing arrangement where one party pays the other interest to earn a return on an asset that it does not wish to hold itself, perhaps for liquidity reasons. The financed asset is held by the party paying the asset's returns, effectively creating a 'collateral'. Therefore statement III is correct.

A credit linked note is a funded instrument where the sellers of the protection have put up the money upfront in the form of a subscription to a note in case the credit losses are realized. Therefore statement IV is not correct.

For a deep in the money option, the option value changes in line with the value of the underlying because at this point the option is effectively behaving like the underlying. Therefore its delta is the same as the delta of the underlying, ie 1. In the same way, its gamma will be the same as the gamma of the underlying, which is 0. Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer.