GET 65% Discount on All Products
Coupon code: "bigdisc65"
Which of the following is NOT an attribute in the vendor inventory used to assign risk rating and vendor classification?
Type of data accessed, processed, or retained
Type of systems accessed
Type of contract addendum
Type of network connectivity
Vendor inventory is a list of all the third-party vendors that an organization engages with, along with relevant information about their products, services, contracts, and risks. Vendor inventory is a crucial tool for vendor risk management, as it helps an organization identify, assess, monitor, and mitigate the potential risks associated with its vendors. Vendor inventory also helps an organization prioritize its vendor oversight activities, allocate its resources efficiently, and comply with its regulatory obligations12.
One of the key steps in creating and maintaining a vendor inventory is to assign a risk rating and a vendor classification to each vendor, based on various attributes that reflect the level of risk and criticality they pose to the organization. The risk rating and vendor classification help an organization determine the frequency and depth of its vendor due diligence, review, and audit processes, as well as the appropriate controls and remediation actions to implement3 .
Some of the common attributes used to assign risk rating and vendor classification are :
The type of contract addendum is NOT an attribute used to assign risk rating and vendor classification, as it is not directly related to the risk or criticality of the vendor. The type of contract addendum is a legal document that modifies or supplements the original contract between the vendor and the organization, such as adding or deleting terms, clauses, or provisions. The type of contract addendum may reflect the changes or updates in the vendor relationship, such as scope, duration, price, service level, etc., but it does not indicate the level of risk or impact that the vendor has on the organization. Therefore, the type of contract addendum is not a relevant factor for vendor risk assessment and management . References:
Which statement reflects a requirement that is NOT typically found in a formal Information Security Incident Management Program?
The program includes the definition of internal escalation processes
The program includes protocols for disclosure of information to external parties
The program includes mechanisms for notification to clients
The program includes processes in support of disaster recovery
An Information Security Incident Management Program is a set of policies, procedures, and tools that enable an organization to prevent, detect, respond to, and recover from information security incidents. An information security incident is any event that compromises the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information assets, systems, or services12. A formal Information Security Incident Management Program typically includes the following components12:
The statement that reflects a requirement that is NOT typically found in a formal Information Security Incident Management Program is D. The program includes processes in support of disaster recovery. While disaster recovery is an important aspect of information security, it is not a specific component of an Information Security Incident Management Program. Rather, it is a separate program that covers the broader scope of business continuity and resilience, and may involve other types of disasters besides information security incidents, such as natural disasters, power outages, or pandemics3 . Therefore, the correct answer is D. The program includes processes in support of disaster recovery. References: 1: Computer Security Incident Handling Guide 2: Develop and Implement a Security Incident Management Program 3: Business Continuity Management vs Disaster Recovery : What is the difference between disaster recovery and security incident response?
Which type of contract provision is MOST important in managing Fourth-Nth party risk after contract signing and on-boarding due diligence is complete?
Subcontractor notice and approval
Indemnification and liability
Breach notification
Right to audit
Fourth-Nth party risk refers to the potential threats and vulnerabilities associated with the subcontractors, vendors, or service providers of an organization’s direct third-party partners12. After contract signing and on-boarding due diligence is complete, the most important type of contract provision to manage Fourth-Nth party risk is subcontractor notice and approval. This provision requires the third party to inform the organization of any subcontracting arrangements and obtain the organization’s consent before engaging any Fourth-Nth parties345. This provision enables the organization to have visibility and control over the extended network of suppliers and service providers, and to assess the potential risks and impacts of any outsourcing decisions. Subcontractor notice and approval also helps the organization to ensure that the Fourth-Nth parties comply with the same standards and expectations as the third party, and to hold the third party accountable for the performance and security of the Fourth-Nth parties345. References:
Once a vendor questionnaire is received from a vendor what is the MOST important next step when evaluating the responses?
Document your analysis and provide confirmation to the business unit regarding receipt of the questionnaire
Update the vender risk registry and vendor inventory with the results in order to complete the assessment
Calculate the total number of findings to rate the effectiveness of the vendor response
Analyze the responses to identify adverse or high priority responses to prioritize controls that should be tested
The most important next step after receiving a vendor questionnaire is to analyze the responses and identify any gaps, issues, or risks that may pose a threat to the organization or its customers. This analysis should be based on the inherent risk profile of the vendor, the criticality of the service or product they provide, and the applicable regulatory and contractual requirements. The analysis should also highlight any adverse or high priority responses that indicate a lack of adequate controls, policies, or procedures on the vendor’s part. These responses should be prioritized for further validation, testing, or remediation. The analysis should also document any assumptions, limitations, or dependencies that may affect the accuracy or completeness of the vendor’s responses. References:
An IT asset management program should include all of the following components EXCEPT:
Maintaining inventories of systems, connections, and software applications
Defining application security standards for internally developed applications
Tracking and monitoring availability of vendor updates and any timelines for end of support
Identifying and tracking adherence to IT asset end-of-life policy
An IT asset management program is a set of processes and tools that help an organization manage its IT assets throughout their lifecycle, from acquisition to disposal. An IT asset management program should include the following components1234:
Defining application security standards for internally developed applications is not a component of an IT asset management program, but rather a component of an application development and security program. An application development and security program is a set of processes and tools that help an organization design, develop, test, deploy, and maintain secure and reliable applications, whether they are internally developed or acquired from external sources. An application development and security program should include the following components5 :
References:
Which cloud deployment model is primarily focused on the application layer?
Infrastructure as a Service
Software as a Service
Function a3 a Service
Platform as a Service
Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud deployment model that provides users with access to software applications over the internet, without requiring them to install, maintain, or update the software on their own devices. SaaS is primarily focused on the application layer, as it delivers the complete functionality of the software to the end users, while abstracting away the underlying infrastructure, platform, and middleware layers. SaaS providers are responsible for managing the servers, databases, networks, security, and scalability of the software, as well as ensuring its availability, performance, and compliance. SaaS users only pay for the software usage, usually on a subscription or pay-per-use basis, and can access the software from any device and location, as long as they have an internet connection. Some examples of SaaS applications are Gmail, Salesforce, Dropbox, and Netflix. References:
Tracking breach, credential exposure and insider fraud/theft alerts is an example of which continuous monitoring technique?
Monitoring surface
Vulnerabilities
Passive and active indicators of compromise
Business intelligence
Continuous monitoring is a process of collecting and analyzing data on the performance and security of third-party vendors on an ongoing basis. Continuous monitoring helps to identify and mitigate potential risks, such as data breaches, credential exposures, insider fraud/theft, and other cyber incidents, that may affect the organization and its customers. Continuous monitoring can use various techniques, such as monitoring surface, vulnerabilities, passive and active indicators of compromise, and business intelligence.
Passive and active indicators of compromise are examples of continuous monitoring techniques that track the signs of malicious activity or compromise on the third-party vendor’s systems or networks. Passive indicators of compromise are data sources that do not require direct interaction with the target, such as threat intelligence feeds, dark web monitoring, or external scanning. Active indicators of compromise are data sources that require direct interaction with the target, such as penetration testing, malware analysis, or incident response. Both passive and active indicators of compromise can provide valuable information on the current state and potential threats of the third-party vendor’s environment.
The other options are not examples of continuous monitoring techniques that track breach, credential exposure and insider fraud/theft alerts. Monitoring surface is a technique that measures the size and complexity of the third-party vendor’s attack surface, such as the number and type of internet-facing assets, domains, and services. Vulnerabilities are a technique that identifies the weaknesses or flaws in the third-party vendor’s systems or applications that can be exploited by attackers, such as outdated software, misconfigurations, or unpatched bugs. Business intelligence is a technique that analyzes the business performance and reputation of the third-party vendor, such as financial stability, customer satisfaction, or regulatory compliance. References:
Which capability is LEAST likely to be included in the annual testing activities for Business Continuity or Disaster Recovery plans?
Plans to enable technology and business operations to be resumed at a back-up site
Process to validate that specific databases can be accessed by applications at the designated location
Ability for business personnel to perform their functions at an alternate work space location
Require participation by third party service providers in collaboration with industry exercises
Business Continuity or Disaster Recovery (BC/DR) plans are designed to ensure the continuity of critical business functions and processes in the event of a disruption or disaster. BC/DR plans should include annual testing activities to validate the effectiveness and readiness of the plans, as well as to identify and address any gaps or weaknesses. Testing activities should cover the three main areas of BC/DR: people, processes, and technology12.
The four options given in the question represent different types of testing activities that may be included in the BC/DR plans. However, option D is the least likely to be included, as it is not a mandatory or common practice for most organizations. While it is beneficial to involve third party service providers in the BC/DR testing, as they may play a vital role in the recovery process, it is not a requirement or a standard for most industries. Third party service providers may have their own BC/DR plans and testing schedules, which may not align with the organization’s plans and objectives. Moreover, requiring their participation in industry exercises may pose challenges in terms of coordination, confidentiality, and cost34.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it is the least likely to be included in the annual testing activities for BC/DR plans. The other options are more likely to be included, as they are essential for ensuring the availability and functionality of the technology, processes, and personnel that support the critical business operations. These options are:
References:
Which statement is FALSE regarding the methods of measuring third party risk?
Risk can be measured both qualitatively and quantitatively
Risk can be quantified by calculating the severity of impact and likelihood of occurrence
Assessing risk impact requires an analysis of prior events, frequency of occurrence, and external trends to analyze and predict the potential of a particular event happening
Risk likelihood or probability is a critical element in quantifying inherent or residual risk
This statement is false because assessing risk impact does not require an analysis of prior events, frequency of occurrence, and external trends. These factors are relevant for assessing risk likelihood or probability, not impact. Risk impact is the potential consequence or damage that a risk event may cause to the organization or its stakeholders. Risk impact can be measured qualitatively (e.g., high, medium, low) or quantitatively (e.g., monetary value, percentage of revenue, number of customers affected). To assess risk impact, the organization needs to consider the nature and scope of the risk, the potential harm or loss, and the sensitivity or tolerance of the organization or its stakeholders to the risk. References:
Which statement is NOT a method of securing web applications?
Ensure appropriate logging and review of access and events
Conduct periodic penetration tests
Adhere to web content accessibility guidelines
Include validation checks in SDLC for cross site scripting and SOL injections
Web content accessibility guidelines (WCAG) are a set of standards that aim to make web content more accessible to people with disabilities, such as visual, auditory, cognitive, or motor impairments. While WCAG is a good practice for web development and usability, it is not directly related to web application security. WCAG does not address the common security risks that web applications face, such as injection, broken authentication, misconfiguration, or vulnerable components. Therefore, adhering to WCAG is not a method of securing web applications, unlike the other options. References:
TESTED 05 Feb 2025
Copyright © 2014-2025 CertsBoard. All Rights Reserved