220-1101 Exam Dumps - CompTIA A+ Questions and Answers

A significant increase in the number of reallocated sectors on a hard drive is a clear indication that the drive is experiencing physical damage or wear and tear that cannot be repaired through software means. Reallocated sectors are bad sectors that the drive's firmware has marked as unusable and moved data to spare sectors. This is often a precursor to drive failure. Therefore, the most prudent next step is to replace the hard drive to ensure data integrity and system reliability.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

In laser printers, the fuser unit is responsible for melting the toner onto the paper using heat and pressure. If the toner rubs off easily, it's a clear sign the fuser is failing or not heating properly. Replacing the fuser will ensure the toner bonds correctly to the paper.

Option B (Drum): Transfers the image, but doesn't fuse the toner.

Option C (Developer roller): Applies toner to the drum — wouldn’t cause toner to rub off.

Option D (Discharge lamp): Prepares the drum for a new image; not related to toner adhesion.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.

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If an application was previously running in a virtualized environment and is not launching after being installed directly on the base operating system, it's possible that the technician did not account for dependencies or configurations specific to the virtualized environment that are not present or are incompatible with the base operating system. This mismatch can prevent the application from launching properly.

In DNS (Domain Name System), the AAAA record is used to map a domain or device to an IPv6 address. IPv6 addresses are 128-bit addresses, and the AAAA record is specifically designed for handling these larger addresses.

C. AAAA: This record is used to associate a hostname with an IPv6 address in DNS.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. A: An A record maps a domain to an IPv4 address, not an IPv6 address.

B. CNAME: A CNAME (Canonical Name) record is used to alias one domain name to another but does not map to an IP address directly.

D. MX: An MX (Mail Exchange) record is used to direct email traffic to the correct email servers, not to map devices to IP addresses.

This falls under the Networking domain of the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam​.

A hotspot provides a redundant internet connection using cellular data. This ensures connectivity for the meeting even if the primary ISP connection fails.

Why Not A (Wireless access point): A wireless access point expands Wi-Fi connectivity but does not provide internet redundancy.

Why Not B (Near-field communication): NFC is used for short-range communication, not internet connectivity.

Why Not D (Bluetooth): Bluetooth is for short-range device pairing and cannot serve as a backup internet connection.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1101), Section 2.7, internet connection types and redundancy​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Random BSODs (Blue Screen of Death), intermittent freezing, and degraded performance under load are common symptoms of failing or faulty RAM (Random Access Memory). Here's the reasoning:

RAM Module (Correct Answer):

Faulty or failing RAM can cause random BSODs due to memory errors when the system attempts to read or write to corrupted memory locations.

Intermittent freezing, especially under performance-intensive operations, can occur because the CPU relies heavily on RAM for active processing tasks.

Over time, heat generated during usage can exacerbate RAM instability, leading to progressively worse performance throughout the day.

Solution: The technician should run a memory diagnostic tool, such as Windows Memory Diagnostic or MemTest86, to confirm if the RAM is at fault.

Incorrect Options:

A. Video Card: A faulty video card can cause graphical glitches, screen artifacts, or crashes, but it is unlikely to cause system-wide performance degradation and random freezing under normal operations unless the issue is specific to GPU-intensive tasks (e.g., gaming or video rendering).

B. HDD: A failing hard drive can cause system slowdowns and freezing, but it typically produces other symptoms such as read/write errors, boot failures, or clicking sounds. HDD issues do not usually cause BSODs unless critical system files are corrupted.

D. TPM (Trusted Platform Module): A TPM is a hardware-based security module used for encryption and secure authentication. It does not affect performance or cause BSODs or freezing under normal operation.

Key Takeaway:

The symptoms described (random BSODs, intermittent freezing, and degraded performance under load) are most likely caused by faulty or failing RAM. Memory diagnostic tools should be used to confirm the issue.

The technician has identified the symptoms (slow performance and random pop-ups) and must now establish a theory of probable cause, such as malware or spyware infection. This step aligns with the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology.

Why Not A (Establish a knowledge base): This is irrelevant at this stage; knowledge bases are used for reference and documentation.

Why Not C (Establish a new theory and consider escalating): The technician has not yet created or tested a theory, making escalation premature.

Why Not D (Establish a plan of action): Planning an action occurs after determining the cause of the problem.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, troubleshooting methodology​​.

To terminate an RJ45 port, a technician should use a punchdown tool. This tool is specifically designed to insert and cut (terminate) the wires into a patch panel, keystone jack, or a network surface mount box. The punchdown tool ensures that the wire is properly seated in the terminal block and that the connection is secure. It also trims the excess wire during the termination process, which is not a function that cable testers, toner probes, or cable strippers are designed to perform.

The digitizer is responsible for detecting touch input, so if the phone is not responding to touch, it is likely the digitizer is malfunctioning.

A hybrid cloud is a cloud computing environment that combines on-premises, private cloud, and public cloud resources. This configuration allows organizations to deploy workloads and data in a way that optimizes performance, security, and cost management.

Key Characteristics of a Hybrid Cloud:

Combines private cloud (on-premises or dedicated servers) and public cloud (resources accessed over the internet).

Allows for the movement of data and applications between private and public clouds.

Supports scenarios where certain data must remain on-premises for security or compliance reasons, while other workloads utilize the scalability of public cloud resources.

Comparison to Other Options:

A. Private Cloud: A private cloud is a dedicated environment for a single organization, either on-premises or hosted by a service provider. It does not include any public cloud integration, as seen in a hybrid model.

C. Community Cloud: This model is shared among several organizations with similar requirements, typically for collaborative projects, and does not blend public and private infrastructure.

D. Public Cloud: Resources are entirely hosted on a cloud provider’s infrastructure and are shared among multiple customers, lacking the private, dedicated resources of a hybrid setup.

CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives References:

220-1101 (Core 1), Section 4.1 outlines various cloud-computing models, including private, public, hybrid, and community clouds.

Hybrid cloud is explicitly described as an environment that mixes private and public resources to deliver flexible and scalable solutions​.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

An MX (Mail Exchange) record defines which mail servers are responsible for receiving email for a domain. If you want to change or redirect email traffic, the MX record must be updated with the correct server information.

Option B (TXT): Stores text-based info — used for SPF, DKIM, etc.

Option C (SPF): Part of email authentication stored in a TXT record; doesn’t redirect traffic.

Option D (CNAME): Alias for another domain name — not used for email routing.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 2.4: Compare and contrast common networking hardware.

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Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

A degraded RAID 1 array usually means one of the drives has failed or is failing. The correct next step is to run diagnostics on each drive to identify the faulty one. RAID 1 uses mirroring, so one good drive should still contain all the data.

Option B: chkdsk checks file system integrity, not hardware drive health.

Option C: Rebuilding should only occur after identifying and replacing a faulty drive.

Option D: RAID 0 offers no redundancy and would destroy data in this context.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to storage devices.

The symptoms described, such as the operating system taking longer than usual to load and hearing clicking sounds from within the workstation, are indicative of a failing hard drive. Clicking sounds, often referred to as the "click of death," signal the read/write head of the hard drive struggling to function properly. This mechanical failure leads to longer load times as the system struggles to read data from the disk. It is crucial to back up data and consider replacing the hard drive to prevent data loss.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

A common reason for a POST failure after a motherboard installation is improperly seated RAM. The system requires working memory to successfully complete POST. Reseating (removing and reinserting) the RAM ensures it's making proper contact with the motherboard.

Option A: Flashing the BIOS is not possible if the system won’t POST.

Option B: A dead CMOS battery can cause BIOS settings to reset, but it usually won’t prevent POST entirely.

Option D: Reinstalling the old motherboard is premature — basic troubleshooting steps should be completed first.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPU, and power.

Since the on-premises email server has been decommissioned and users are experiencing issues with scan-to-email functionality, the best solution would be to configure an email relay. An email relay server can accept emails from devices like printers and forward them to the correct destination (such as a cloud-based email service). This avoids the need to bring back the old server or set up a new one.

A. Configure an email relay on an existing server: This allows the scanner to send emails through another server, ensuring the functionality is restored.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Configure a secure, cloud-based email relay: While a cloud-based solution could work, configuring an email relay on an existing server is a more immediate and likely solution.

C. Bring the old email server back into production: This is unnecessary and would defeat the purpose of decommissioning it.

D. Configure a new email server from scratch: Setting up a new email server would be time-consuming and not necessary in this situation.

This is part of the Networking and Troubleshooting domain in the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam​.

In this scenario, running a network cable over a long distance (279ft or 85m) and sharing conduit with a large power cable requires careful consideration of electromagnetic interference (EMI) and the physical distance limitations of the cable type. Fiber optic cables are immune to electromagnetic interference and can support much longer distances than copper-based cables like Cat 5e or Cat 6 without signal degradation. This makes fiber optic the most appropriate choice for this project.

A firewall implements ACLs (Access Control Lists) to filter traffic and enforce policies based on rules such as IP address, port, or protocol.

Why Not A (Managed switch): A managed switch supports VLANs and QoS but does not enforce ACLs at the network perimeter.

Why Not B (Gateway): Gateways connect networks and translate protocols but don’t typically implement ACLs.

Why Not C (Repeater): Repeaters extend signal range but don’t enforce policies.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1101), Section 2.2, firewall concepts​.

When a laptop sometimes fails to charge despite a good power adapter connection, the most likely issue is a defective DC jack. The DC jack, where the power adapter plugs into the laptop, can become loose or damaged over time, leading to intermittent or failed charging. Cooling fan issues, bad memory, or an overheating CPU would typically lead to different symptoms such as overheating, system crashes, or performance issues, not charging problems.

TPM 2.0 (Trusted Platform Module) is often disabled by default in the UEFI BIOS. Enabling it is necessary to meet the requirements for certain Windows installations, including Windows 11.

Why Not B (Install an HSM): A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a separate device used for cryptographic functions and is not related to TPM on the motherboard.

Why Not C (Perform a clean install): A clean installation will not bypass the TPM 2.0 requirement.

Why Not D (Implement BitLocker): BitLocker requires TPM but does not resolve its absence or lack of activation.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1101), Section 3.4, BIOS/UEFI configuration​.