NAPLEX Exam Dumps - NABP NAPLEX Certification Questions and Answers

B: Loop diuretics inhibit the Na/K/2Cl cotransporter of the luminal membrane in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle. Therefore, reabsorption of Na, K, and CL is decreased. The loop diuretics are the most efficacious of the diuretic drugs because the ascending limb accounts for the reabsorption of 25–30 % of filtered NaCl and downstream sites are not able to compensate for this increased Na load. Loop diuretics are the drugs of

choice for reducing acute pulmonary edema in congestive heart failure. Loop diuretics act promptly, even among patients who have poor function or who have not responded to thiazides or other diuretics. Adverse side effects include ototoxicity, particularly when used in conjunction with the aminoglycoside antibiotics. Furosemide and ethacrynic acid compete with uric acid for the renal and biliary secretary system, thus blocking its secretion, and thereby causing or exacerbating gouty attacks. A: Aldosterone receptor antagonist is incorrect. Spironolactone is a synthetic aldosterone antagonist that competes with aldosterone for intracellular cytoplasmic receptor sites. Because spironolactone chemically resembles some of the sex steroids, it does have minimal hormonal activity and may induce gynecomastia in males and menstrual irregularities in females. C: Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase is incorrect. Acetazolamide inhibits carbonic anhydrase, which is located intracellulary and on the apical membrane of the proximal tubular epithelium. The decreased ability to exchange NA for H in the presence of acetazolamide results in a mild diuresis. The adverse side effects of acetazolamide include metabolic acidosis (mild), potassium depletion, renal stone formation, drowsiness, and paresthesia. D: Acts as osmotic diuretic is incorrect. A number of simple, hydrophilic, chemical substances that are filtered through the glomerulus, such as mannitol and urea, result in some degree of diuresis. This is due to their ability to carry water with them into tubular fluid. Osmotic diuretics are a mainstay of treatment for patients with increased intracranial pressure or acute renal failure due to

shock, drug toxicities, or trauma. E: Blocking of the NaCl cotransporter is incorrect. The thiazide derivatives act mainly in the distal tubule to decrease the reabsorption of Na by inhibition of an Na/Cl cotransporter on the luminal membrane. As a result, these drugs increase the concentration of NA and CL in the tubular fluid. Hypokalemia is the most frequent problem encountered with the thiazide diuretics and can predispose patients on digitalis to ventricular arrhythmias. Thiazides increase serum uric acid by decreasing the amount of acid excreted by the organic acid secretory system. The thiazides inhibit the secretion of calcium, sometimes leading to elevated levels of Ca in the blood.

Seizure threshold can be lowered by bupropion, chlorpromazine, clozapine, maprotiline, olanzapine, thioridazine, thiothixene, and tramadol.

The diagnosis of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is suggested when plasma gastrin is > 1000 pg/ml and the basal acid output is > 15 mEq/h or when associated with a pH < 2. The treatment is focused on controlling gastric acid hypersecretion and localisation of the tumour and its metastases. Proton pump inhibitors are the most effective antisecretory drugs and can be administered at high dosages

Influenza vaccine is recommended annually, thus, WM should not skip it this year, and B is incorrect. Also, per the CDC, seasonal influenza outbreaks can occur as early as October, however, most activity peaks in January or later. Thus, it is not too late for WM to receive his vaccine in December, thus A is incorrect. Lastly, antiviral medications such as Tamiflu are an important adjunct to vaccinations. They are recommended as early as possible for any patient with confirmed or suspected influenza who, is 1) Hospitalized, 2) has severe, complicated, or progressive illness or 3) is at higher risk for influenza complications. Thus, WM is not a candidate with the given information and C is incorrect. Starting Tamiflu or Amantadine is not recommended for prevention. It has indication for treatment and prophylaxis.

B: A variety of drugs have been found to be of some value in the prevention and treatment of vomiting, especially cancer chemotherapy-induced vomiting. With the exception of thioridazine, most of the neuroleptic drugs have antiemetic effects that are mediated by blocking D2 dopaminergic receptors of the chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla. Phenothiazines, such as prochlorperazine, were the first drugs shown to be effective antiemetic agents and act by blocking dopamine receptors. They are effective against low to moderately emetogenic chemotherapeutic agents (for example, fluorouracil and doxorubicin). Although increasing the dose improves antiemetic activity, side effects, including hypotension and restlessness, are dose limiting. Other adverse reactions include extrapyramidal symptom and sedation. A: Serotonin 5-HT3 antagonist is incorrect. The specific antagonists of the 5-HT3 receptor, ondansetron and granisetron, selectively block 5-HT3 receptors in the periphery and in the brain (chemoreceptor trigger zone). C: Cannabinoids related is incorrect. Cannabinoids are marijuana derivatives including dronabinol and nabilone and are effective against moderately emetogenic chemotherapy. However, they are seldom first-line antiemetics because of serious side effects. D: Blockage of prostaglandins is incorrect. Dexamethasone and methylprednisolone used alone are effective against mildly to moderately emetogenic chemotherapy. Their antiemetic mechanism is not known, but it may involve blockade of prostaglandins. E: H2 receptor antagonist is incorrect. Antagonists of histamine H2 receptor block the action of histamine at all H2 receptors; their chief clinical use is as inhibitors of gastric acid secretion.

Nadolol is not proven to reduce mortality in patients with systolic CHF. The efficacy of nadolol in HF has not been determined. For patients taking nadolol, it should be used with caution in those with compensated heart failure and patients should be monitored for a worsening of the condition. Bisoprolol, carvedilol, and sustained- release metoprolol succinate are the beta-blockers that have been proven to reduce mortality in patients with systolic CHF. These 3 beta-blockers have been effective in reducing the risk of death in patients with chronic HFrEF. Other beta-blockers were found to be less effective. Bucindolol did not exhibit uniform effectiveness across different populations. Metoprolol tartrate was found to be less effective in HF clinical trials.

Gestational diabetes is typically asymptomatic but identified via a 1-hour 50g oral glucose challenge administered at 24–28 weeks of gestation. A venous plasma glucose blood level of > 140 mg/dL is suggestive, and must be confirmed with a 3-hour 100g oral glucose tolerance test. After administration of the 100g glucose challenge, at least two of the following are required for diagnosis: (1) fasting glucose > 95 mg/dL, (2) one-hour glucose >180 mg/dL, (3) two hour glucose >155 mg/dL, and (4) three hour glucose > 140 mg/dL. Choice A –

To diagnose gestational diabetes, a positive 1-hour 50g oral glucose challenge must be followed up by a three-hour 100g oral glucose challenge. The diagnosis is only confirmed after both challenges are completed and the thresholds are met. Choice C – Following the diagnosis of gestational diabetes, the first step is strict glycemic control (fasting glucose).

Sucralfate is a drug used to treat active duodenal ulcers and may also be used to treat GERD or stress ulcers.

Zileuton is the active ingredient found in the medicine Zyflo; a medicine that works as a 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor. As such, zileuton inhibits leukotrienes (LTB4, LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4) formation, and is used for the maintenance treatment of asthma in patients older than the age of 12. In 2 percent of patients, it raises liver enzymes. Sinusitis and nausea are the most common side effects.

This patient belongs in one of the four statin benefit groups because his estimated 10-year ASCVD risk is over 7.5%. Adults 40 to 75 years of age with LDL–C 70 to 189 mg/dL, with an estimated 10-year ASCVD risk ≥7.5% and without clinical ASCVD or diabetes should receive either a moderate-intensity or high-intensity statin. Since the extent of reducing the risk of ASCVD is proportionally related to the degree of LDL-C reduction, risk could be reduced more so with a high intensity statin. Considering the given options, Atorvastatin 80 mg PO QHS is the best choice.