The facility has received a clinical validation denial for sepsis. The denial states sepsis is not a clinically valid diagnosis because it does not meet Sepsis-3 criteria. The facility has a policy stating it uses Sepsis-2 criteria. What is the BEST next step?
A 27-year-old male patient presents to the emergency room with crampy, right lower quadrant abdominal pain, a low-grade fever (101° Fahrenheit) and vomiting. The
patient also has a history of type I diabetes mellitus. A complete blood count reveals mild leukocytosis (13,000/microliter). Abdominal ultrasound is ordered, and the
patient is admitted for laparoscopic surgery. The patient is given an injection of neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin, in order to normalize the blood sugar level prior to
surgery. Upon discharge, the attending physician documents "right lower quadrant abdominal pain due to possible acute appendicitis or probable Meckel diverticulitis".
What is the proper sequencing of the principal and secondary diagnoses?
Proposed changes to the inpatient prospective payment system (IPPS) take effect on
Educating physicians on severity of illness and risk of mortality is best accomplished by utilizing