All 8010 Test Inside PRMIA Questions

The probability of default would make the expected value of the future cash flows from both the corporate bond and the risk free bond identical. If p be the probability of default, the cash flows from the risky corporate bond would be

= (cash flows in the event of default x probability of default) + (cash flows without default x (1 - probability of default))

=> 5%*0 + (1 - 5%)*(1 + 12%) = (1 + Rf).

therefore Rf = 6.4%

(In reality investors would demand a 'credit risk premium' over and above the expected default loss rate. They are unlikely to be happy with just being compensated with exactly the expected default loss rate plus the risk-fre rate because the expected default loss rate itself is uncertain. They would demand some premium over and above what the default rate alone might mathematically imply above the risk free rate. In this question, this credit risk premium is ignored.)

Economic capitalis often calculated with a view to maintaining the credit ratings for a firm. It is the capital available to absorb unexpected losses, and credit ratings are also based upon a certain probability of default. Economic capital is often calculated at a levelequal to the confidence required for the desired credit rating. For example, if the probability of default for a AA rating is 0.02%, and the firm desires to hold an AA rating, then economic capital maintained at a confidence level of 99.98% would allow for such a rating. In this case, economic capital set at a 99.8% level can be thought of as the level of losses that would not be exceeded with a 99.8% probability, and would help get the firm its desired credit rating.

Choice 'c' is the correct answer. Economic capital does not target minimizing the cost of capital, nor is it a provision for losses arising from market risk. The concept of economic capital is unrelated to where an institution or firm is based, therefore Choice 'a' is incorrect as well.

Explanation

If the risks are considered perfectly positively correlated, ie assumed to have a correlation equal to 1, the standard deviations can simply be added together. This gives the most conservative estimate of combined risk forcapital calculation purposes. In practice, this is the assumption used most often.

If risks are uncorrelated, ie correlation is assumed to be zero, variances can be added or the standard deviation is the root of the sum of the squares of the individual standard deviations. This obviously gives a number lower than that given when correlation is assumed to be +1.

Similarly, assumptions of negative correlation, or any correlation other than +1 will give a standard deviation number that is smaller and thereforeless conservative. Choice 'b' is the correct answer.

In the Standardized Approach, banks’ activities are divided into eight business lines: corporate finance, trading & sales, retail banking, commercial banking, payment & settlement, agency services, asset management, and retail brokerage. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.