CSSLP Exam Dumps - ISC certification Questions and Answers

The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), known between 1901 and 1988 as the National Bureau of Standards (NBS), is a measurement standards laboratory which is a non-regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce. The institute's official mission is to promote U.S. innovation and industrial competitiveness by advancing measurement science, standards, and technology in ways that enhance economic security and improve quality of life. Answer: D is incorrect. The Committee on National Security Systems (CNSS) is a United States intergovernmental organization that sets policy for the security of the US security systems. The CNSS holds discussions of policy issues, sets national policy, directions, operational procedures, and guidance for the information systems operated by the U.S. Government, its contractors, or agents that contain classified information, involve intelligence activities, involve cryptographic activities related to national security, etc. Answer: A is incorrect.

The National Security Agency/Central Security Service (NSA/CSS) is a crypto-logic intelligence agency of the United States government. It is administered as part of the United States Department of Defense. NSA is responsible for the collection and analysis of foreign communications and foreign signals intelligence, which involves cryptanalysis. NSA is also responsible for protecting U.S. government communications and information systems from similar agencies elsewhere, which involves cryptography. NSA is a key component of the U.S. Intelligence Community, which is headed by the Director of National Intelligence. The Central Security Service is a co-located agency created to coordinate intelligence activities and co-operation between NSA and U.S. military cryptanalysis agencies. NSA's work is limited to communications intelligence. It does not perform field or human intelligence activities. Answer: C is incorrect. The United States Congress is the bicameral legislature of the federal government of the United States of America. It consists of the Senate and the House of Representatives. The Congress meets in the United States Capitol in Washington, D.C. Both senators and representatives are chosen through direct election. Each of the 435 members of the House of Representatives represents a district and serves a two-year term. House seats are apportioned among the states by population. The 100 Senators serve staggered six-year terms. Each state has two senators, regardless of population. Every two years, approximately one-third of the Senate is elected at a time. The United States Congress main function is to make laws. The Office of the Law Revision Counsel organizes and publishes the United States Code (USC). It is a consolidation and codification by subject matter of the general and permanent laws of the United States.

The following types of activities can be audited: Network logons and logoffs File access Printer access Remote access service Application usage Network services Auditing is used to track user accounts for file and object access, logon attempts, system shutdown, etc. This enhances the security of the network. Before enabling security auditing, the type of event to be audited should be specified in the audit policy. Auditing is an essential component to maintain the security of deployed systems. Security auditing depends on the criticality of the environment and on the company's security policy. The security system should be reviewed periodically. Answer: B is incorrect. Data downloading from the Internet cannot be audited.

The Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is a number that represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur. It is calculated based upon the probability of the event occurring and the number of employees that could make that event occur. Answer: D is incorrect. The Exposure Factor (EF) represents the % of assets loss caused by a threat. The EF is required to calculate the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE). Answer: A is incorrect. The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the value in dollars that is assigned to a single event. SLE = Asset Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF) Answer: C is incorrect. Safeguard acts as a countermeasure for reducing the risk associated with a specific threat or a group of threats.

In the waterfall model, software development can be managed if the developers are limited to go back only one stage to rework. If this limitation is not imposed mainly on a large project with several team members, then any developer can be working on any phase at any time, and the required rework might be accomplished several times. Answer: B is incorrect. The spiral model is a software development process combining elements of both design and prototyping-in- stages, in an effort to combine advantages of top-down and bottom-up concepts. The basic principles of the spiral model are as follows: The focus is on risk assessment and minimizing project risks by breaking a project into smaller segments and providing more ease-of- change during the development process, as well as providing the opportunity to evaluate risks and weigh consideration of project continuation throughout the life cycle. Each cycle involves a progression through the same sequence of steps, for each portion of the product and for each of its levels of elaboration, from an overall concept-of-operation document down to the coding of each individual program. Each trip around the spiral traverses the following four basic quadrants: Determine objectives, alternatives, and constraints of the iteration. Evaluate alternatives, and identify and resolve risks. Develop and verify deliverables from the iteration. Plan the next iteration.

Begin each cycle with an identification of stakeholders and their win conditions, and end each cycle with review and commitment. Answer: D is incorrect. The Prototyping model is a systems development method (SDM). In this model, a prototype is created, tested, and then reworked as necessary until an adequate prototype is finally achieved from which the complete system or product can now be developed. Answer: C is incorrect. Rapid Application Development (RAD) refers to a type of software development methodology that uses minimal planning in favor of rapid prototyping.

The different tasks performed by the owner are as follows: He makes the original determination to decide what level of classification the information requires, which is based on the business requirements for the safety of the data. He reviews the classification assignments from time to time and makes alterations as the business needs change. He delegates the responsibility of the data safeguard duties to the custodian. He specifies controls to ensure confidentiality, integrity and availability. Answer: C is incorrect. This task is performed by the custodian and not by the owner.

Security controls are safeguards or countermeasures to avoid, counteract, or minimize security risks. The following are the types of security controls for information systems, that can be employed by an organization: 1.System-specific controls: These types of security controls provide security capability for a particular information system only. 2.Common controls: These types of security controls provide security capability for multiple information systems. 3.Hybrid controls: These types of security controls have features of both system-specific and common controls. Answer: C is incorrect. It is an invalid control.

Configuration identification is known as the decomposition process of a verification system into Configuration Items. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed. Answer: D is incorrect. Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item's attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. Configuration control is a means of ensuring that system changes are approved before being implemented. Only the proposed and approved changes are implemented, and the implementation is complete and accurate. Answer: A is incorrect. The configuration status accounting procedure is the ability to record and report on the configuration baselines associated with each configuration item at any moment of time. It supports the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of accounting to the identified attributes for the purpose of maintaining software integrity and traceability throughout the software development life cycle. Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration auditing is the quality assurance element of configuration management. It is occupied in the process of periodic checks to establish the consistency and completeness of accounting information and to validate that all configuration management policies are being followed. Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed design documentation.

BCP is a strategy to minimize the consequence of the instability and to allow for the continuation of business processes. The goal of BCP is to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is formed to avoid interruptions to normal business activity. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan. Answer: B is incorrect. A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and "triggers" for initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption. Answer: C is incorrect. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications, data, hardware, communications (such as networking), and other IT infrastructure. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel, facilities, crisis communication, and reputation protection, and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT-related infrastructure recovery/continuity. Answer: A is incorrect. The Continuity Of Operation Plan (COOP) refers to the preparations and institutions maintained by the United States government, providing survival of federal government operations in the case of catastrophic events. It provides procedures and capabilities to sustain an organization's essential. COOP is the procedure documented to ensure persistent critical operations throughout any period where normal operations are unattainable.

Passive OS fingerprinting can identify attacks originating from a botnet. Network Administrators can configure the firewall to take action on a botnet attack by using information obtained from passive OS fingerprinting. Passive OS fingerprinting (POSFP) allows the sensor to determine the operating system used by the hosts. The sensor examines the traffic flow between two hosts and then stores the operating system of those two hosts along with their IP addresses. In order to determine the type of operating system, the sensor analyzes TCP SYN and SYN ACK packets that are traveled on the network. The sensor computes the attack relevance rating to determine the relevancy of victim attack using the target host OS. After it, the sensor modifies the alert's risk rating or filters the alert for the attack. Passive OS fingerprinting is also used to improve the alert output by reporting some information, such as victim OS, relevancy to the victim in the alert, and source of the OS identification. Answer: D is incorrect. A BPF-based filter is used to limit the number of packets seen by tcpdump; this renders the output more usable on networks with a high volume of traffic. Answer: B is incorrect. Recipient filtering is used to block messages on the basis of whom they are sent to. Answer: C is incorrect. IFilters are used to extract contents from files that are crawled. IFilters also remove application-specific formatting before the content of a document is indexed by the search engine.

The Certification and Accreditation (C&A) process consists of four distinct phases: 1.Initiation 2.Security Certification 3.Security Accreditation 4.Continuous Monitoring The C&A activities can be applied to an information system at appropriate phases in the system development life cycle by selectively tailoring the various tasks and subtasks. Answer: B and C are incorrect. Auditing and detection are not phases of the Certification and Accreditation process.